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Hi everyone- some help, advice and reassurance please! My partner and I (first time buyers) have put an offer in on a house. We have got a mortgage in principle from Barclays for £152k based on having a 5% deposit of £8k for a £160k purchase. If our offer is accepted by the seller, then obviously we need to get started on a mortgage application. We are both in steady, permanent employment- I am a teacher earning £25,373 per year and he is a customer service advisor earning £17,500 per year plus bonuses. My only concern is that up until last month, I was living in my arranged, fee-free overdraft. I have never exceeded the arranged overdraft limit. I have just paid this off in full using savings. Other than this, I have never been charged fees on my account, neither of us have ever missed a direct debit payment, and we both have good credit scores. Will this recently used overdraft be a problem? As mentioned, it is now paid off in full, we have our deposit ready in a Lifetime ISA and I have just been paid so have a full wage in my bank account. Thank you!

I wanted to ask advice on the following. We have just applied and received a second charge mortgage on our property. It was for debt consolidation. However. We now want to sell our house and move to a new property with a larger mortgage. (Within our affordability range) However when we come to apply for a new mortgage will the fact we've just done a second mortgage count against us? Even if the new mortgage would easily clear the two current ones and leave plenty of equity. We have a agreement in principle. But that won't see the hard search on my credit file for the second charge mortgage. What are the chances the new application will get rejected because of the above? Any advice much appreciated. Thank you

Hi All,I'm just after a bit of advice really. My partner and I had reserved a new build prior to COVID using the HTB scheme and had a mortgage offer ready to go for exchange but the pandemic struck. The build was then stopped and completion window moved from initially Aug-Sep 20 to Jan-Feb 21. Unfortunately my partner has been furloughed and this mortgage offer has since expired. We therefore haven't exchanged and will be unable to do so without a mortgage offer. We are trying to arrange for another mortgage offer but despite being way under the possible affordability threshold of our mortgage (even taking into account my partner's furlough salary) our lender is insisting on a letter from their company to explicitly state that they will be returning to work after the furlough scheme ends in October. Apparently they are viewing the furlough scheme as a 'temporary employment' and therefore need evidence of that they will be bringing people back to work when the scheme finishes. The company is in events which has been very badly hit by the virus and have given very little indication as to whether they will bring back staff in October or start making redundancies. Apparently even if we were to reapply with another lender, they would also require this letter of confirmation. This is despite one salary able to cover the mortgage payments and even the possibility of putting down more than a 5% deposit. I am doubtful that my partner will be able to get this letter because the company doesn't appear to have made many decisions r.e. their staff and the furlough scheme as of yet and therefore without this we are currently unable to get a mortgage offer. Without this we are unable to exchange contracts. So the new build we have been waiting for over a year to be ready and which was delayed because of the virus, is now apparently in danger of falling through completely? Are there any lenders who are offering mortgages without requirement for this return to work letter?I wondered if anyone might be in a similar position and had any advice on how to proceed? Thanks for your help!

Recently opened up a joint bank account with another investor only to find out he has "adverse credit". I did obtain his credit report prior to doing so and his credit score was average. I did notice he had a couple of late payments back in 2013 but i didn't think anything off it. It recently come to light when my mortgage broker was trying to apply for a decision in principle in our joint names to find out he is being branded as "adverse credit". My broker advised me to close the bank account immediately and so i have done. The account was only active for about 12 days, so my question is will this affect me applying for a mortgage in my sole name? As we are no longer financially associated.