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Would someone be so kind and look at my problem and give me some tips or advice? I wrote it down chronologically to make it easier to get an idea of the case. Fact one. We are residents (in 2012/13 we moved to the UK) – we do not have any property here yet. Fact two. In 2008 we acquired the property in Poland – we have a marital property community (STATUTORY MARITAL PROPERTY PARTNERSHIP). What we acquired is a plot - BUILT-UP PROPERTY 1500m2. On which there were two properties. detached residential house (single-family) with a usable area of 33,46m2 consisting of two rooms, kitchen, and bathroom (built before 1945) and temporary structure – cabin (camping) not permanently connected to the ground. my wife, children and mother-in-law are registered there. Fact three. Now we are in the process of selling it. From what I know I will not have to tax it in Poland because more than 5 years have passed since the purchase. Part of the money from the sale will remain in Poland – as a donation to my mother-in-law (daughter/mother – so tax-free) Our concern. Unfortunately, there is a doubt related to the entries in the Land and Mortgage Register, and thus in the future sale contract. At the moment in the Land Registry, there are records of objects on the plot, which do not exactly correspond to reality. NON-RESIDENTIAL BUILDING, another, floor area about 41m2 NON-RESIDENTIAL BUILDING, another, floor area about 32m2 NON-RESIDENTIAL BUILDING, another, floor area about 39m2 The facts, however, are the same as when we bought (frankly speaking, we do not know where this entry is currently in LR – probably someone from Land and Mortgage Register Department wrote that record from the time before we bought the property). This is of little importance to the person acquiring (after the purchase, they will make appropriate corrections in the Land and Mortgage Register) and it does not matter for us unless it could affect the taxation of the one in the UK (then we will make the correction in agreement documentation). And here comes a question to you: Will we have to tax it in the UK after the sale? What are the legal and fiscal implications of this sale on us in the UK? If the non-residential building is included in the sales contract (the current provision in LR) could it affect the Capital GainsTax? When we want to buy a property in the UK for the money we get, can it have an impact on taxation in the UK by providing the source of the money after the sale (with the current entry in LR)? Could someone suggest anything? I'm stuck in a dead-end or maybe I'm asking the wrong questions. Thank you in advance for your reply. Kind regards Marcin Przepiorka

Does anyone have a minute to say a line or two about Notting Hill Genesis's past development? Are they too pricey you think?

Hi Having bought a leasehold flat with my parents a couple of years ago I recently started looking at how I could create a property portfolio, having been reinvigorated by the property podcasts. Just as I start looking into this a come across my first potential issue with my existing leasehold flat, a Section 5A right of first refusal from my landlord to purchase the freehold. My understanding is that, assuming sufficient leaseholders are interested in taking advantage of the offer, we can purchase the freehold from the landlord. If not, the landlord can sell the freehold to another company and then they can potentially do what they want in terms of future service charges, etc to recover their investment. This is a completely new concept to me and I will be seeking legal advice this week; however, I wanted to get people's input on here. In particular: 1. Can anyone recommend a legal firm that specialises in leasing matters? 2. If sufficient tenants want to purchase the freehold (I think it needs to be at least 50%), but not everyone does, what happens? The freehold has been offered at £800k between 100 flats (of varying sizes). Would those that want to buy the freehold buy the whole freehold between them or just their portion? What would happen to those that are not interested? How would the building be managed if there were a split? 3. I am aware that there is also the possibility for the tenants to group together and form a right to manage company. Can anyone provide any information on this option and how it would impact the landlord's wish to sell the freehold? 4. Is there a way, as a tenant, to gain the contact details of the other tenants to discuss this issue? I believe the flats are predominantly BTL and, therefore, I imagine just sending a letter to each property (or putting a notice on the notice board) will probably not get a quick response... I wasn't expecting this to be my first PH post but I guess this is my baptism of fire...! Any advice would be greatly received.

Hi everyone, Would appreciate your advice.... I am planning to sell a London flat I have owned for around 12 years. It has been rented out through a local agent for around 8 years. I am not resident in the UK, so using an internet agent is probably difficult as I would need a local agent to show people around. I am fairly experienced with letting and buying property - but I am a complete newbie when it comes to sales! So I would greatly appreciate advice on 1) whether I should ask several agents for valuations or just the current managing agent (they are local and deal with sales and lettings)? 2) how to get the best fee? 3) the property is tenanted, so should I wait until the tenants have moved out or go ahead? All advice would be very welcome! Many thanks hubbers!

I need to prove to court that I had a residential property on the market in 2008 or 2009. I can't remember dates or agents or anything useful to my case. The property is in Mansfield Nottinghamshire. I live in the US. Who should I ask? Where should I go for help? Unfortunately, the sale fell through. Would agents keep records of properties they marketed but did not sell?? Desperate need of your help. Thank you. Holly Warren